September 2022

Sun Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat
        1 2 3
4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
18 19 20 21 22 23 24
25 26 27 28 29 30  
Blog powered by Typepad

« Austrian Virtues | Main | An Additional Academic Move Announcement »

Comments

Feed You can follow this conversation by subscribing to the comment feed for this post.

"The value-freedom discourse of the time (1900-1950) meant treating ends as given and limiting analysis to the effectiveness of the choice of means to satisfying given ends."

Is there any evidence in support of this claim? Where can I read about it?

The genius of Buchanan was to insist that one model agents symmetrically (benevolence across the board or not)

On the historical idea --- read Weber's original discussion of value-freedom, and then Hutchinson's work on The Basic Postulates of Economic Science and compare and contrast.

On Buchanan, of course the behavioral symmetry point was brilliant and represented a major step forward. But why was he refered to as doing "normative political economy" when he did that. His constitutional project was completely misunderstood by most critics. And his analytical strategy of using the Hume idea that in design a system of government it is best to treat all man as if they were knaves was treated as a descriptive stance rather than an analytical one. I have written about this in my essay on Buchanan and the rebirth of political economy, but also in an essay with Pete Leeson on Robust Political Economy and Liberalism.

"But that is because they are failing to appreciate the scholarly context of the time. The value-freedom discourse of the time (1900-1950) meant treating ends as given and limiting analysis to the effectiveness of the choice of means to satisfying given ends. Questioning the ends of the planner would entail a violation of value-freedom. "

Is there any example of anyone actually saying this during the calculation debate? I thought it was more a case of Hayek not thinking economists as economists had anything to say about ends per se.

In what way exactly is Hutchison's 1938 relevant? Prof. Douglas Mackenzie has a stream of quality papers on Lange and none of them suggest that Weberian value freedom has anything to do with Lange's remarks about sociology.

Professor Boettke,
It sounds to me like you're using "value freedom" in an odd sort of way. In my previous exposure to the term, it always seemed to refer to the way in which a value-free science explains various features of the social order (e.g. price formation, the emergence of various institutions) by looking at the ends actually pursued by various economic agents, rather than by evaluating those ends as ethically good or bad. Here, it seems that you're using the term to mean never imputing less than totally benevolent intentions to political actors. Can you clarify the conceptual connection (if any) between these two senses?
Cheers,
Araglin

1. Lange explicitly states in his original paper that questions of motivation are NOT economic questions. You can read that in his essay, but also in Caldwell's JEL survey of Hayek and Socialism.

2. The 1938 book is important because Hutchinson tries to establish the demarcation line in economics based on empirical verification grounds. Weber's argument (and the one Mises followed) argued that economic science could aspire toward objectivity only to the extent the radical subjectivist stance was taken.

3. Doug's papers are solid and should be read, but they don't address this aspect of the debate.

4. I am not using value-freedom in an unusual way, I am using it in the same way that Weber-Mises used it --- treat ends as given, and limit analysis to the examination of the effectiveness of chosen means to satisfy stated ends.

To give a concrete example, very few individuals would ever say they supported the minimum wage because it would hurt the least advantaged the most. No, instead, they argue that they would like minimum wages because it will help the least advantaged. But economic analysis demonstrates that minimum wage legislation is an ineffective means to achieving the goal of helping the least advantaged.

I address many of these issues in my paper "Is Economics a Moral Science?"

"Lange explicitly states in his original paper that questions of motivation are NOT economic questions."

Who denies this? But where does lange (or any other player in the calc debate) say this has anything to do with value-freedom?

Prof. Mackenzie's papers do address this point BTW.

If I'm not mistaken, Pete is echoing a subtle (though contentious) point from Mises, one that has been picked up by Kirzner (see his last few articles in the Freeman).

This argument has to do not with pure catallactics--such as the derivation of a demand curve, which is of course value free--but rather with policy advice. That is, if I read Pete, Mises, and Kirzner correctly (and they are in fact saying the same thing), the economist can profer policy advice AS A SCIENTIST rather than an advocate of an ideology, but only if he takes his interlocutors' values as given. That is, the policy advice itself is value neutral. We know the economist is not introducing his own values precisely because he adopts the values of his interlocutor.

Normally this is assumed to be the policy maker, but it need not be the case. Arguments to "the masses" are equally important. This seems to be what Mises means when he says that liberalism is applied economics.

The comments to this entry are closed.

Our Books