May 2013

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« Austrian Philosophy & Economics: Call for Papers | Main | Why The Great Recession »

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As I understand it the US has significantly lengthened the time that the unemployed can claim unemployment assistance for. (Is that right?)

I would expect that to have an effect. In Europe the countries with generous unemployment benefit have had significantly higher unemployment all the way through the boom. Even during the "Celtic Tiger" boom in Ireland there was ~5.7% unemployment, much higher than the UK which was growing much more slowly. The UK had ~70euro/week unemployment benefit, in Ireland it was 210euro/week. France also had generous benefits and ~9-10% unemployment right through the boom.

I note that most old-line monetarists, including those who were closest to Milton Friedman, are highly critical of current Fed policy. They view it as too expansionary.

Allan Meltzer has recently repeated his criticism of current monetary policy. He attributes persistent unemployment to micro factors.

John Taylor is another critic. And Anna Schwartz was also while still alive.

If a substantial share of today's high unemployment really is due to a lack of spending, what sort of wage-expectations pattern is informing this outcome?

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