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Seems to me we still have to do both, especially in the social sciences. Do we not need to have a clear definition of, say, "value" in order to know what it is we are even researching?

What's a "philosophical definition"?

I agree with Troy. The example given of high liberalism and the premise being false is interesting as any arguement based on a false premise in true in logic. This is because it takes the form of a promise: "if the premise true then these outcomes will occur". I think such statements are really useful (maybe even necessary) to set the empirical research agenda that McCloskey and Pete are talking about.

Troy has a good point, and it seems to me the trouble also is that this archetype of "High Liberalism" may be hard to work with as well. I don't know of any economists that fit this description, so what we might be left with is philosophers who don't know economics. I've read some Nussbaum, but don't know her or Dworkin in any detail. I'd be willing to trust McCloskey, though, on the fact that they could use more economics.

But it seems to me the people who talk about the stuff she mentioned already know that (with reference to externalities, for example) the opportunity for intervention doesn't imply the competence or capacity for intervention. This may be due to the fact that I move more amongst economists than philosophers. Perhaps philosophers do both talk about this regularly and talk about it badly. My reaction to her essay was "well you're exactly right, but who actually thinks that?".

There are also stronger and weaker versions of the argument, and McCloskey only criticizes the very strongest (and least defensible) version. Take the non-governmental emergence of property rights or the non-governmental provision of externalities. It's one thing to say these things won't ever be provided without government. That's quite clearly wrong (and no version of the externality argument would lead you to say that). It's another thing to say that provision would be anemic without government, and that it's not unreasonable to expect cautious government provision to be welfare improving. That's a very different proposition from saying "property rights can never emerge on their own" or "roads will never be built without government".

Seems to me we still have to do both, especially in the social sciences. Do we not need to have a clear definition of, say, "value" in order to know what it is we are even researching?
+1

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